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<p class="MsoNormal">Assume a U.S. company owns a patent covering a particular thing (X). The company can and does make that thing (X). And the company has sufficient capacity to meet any current or expected government requirements for that thing (X).<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Is the company required to grant a license to the U.S. government for the use of the company's patented technology? I.e., to make or use the thing (X).<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">If the U.S. government does use the patented technology (that thing, X) without a license, is the company's only recourse under
<a href="https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1498">28 USC 1498</a>?<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal">Can the company be forced to license the patent to a third party to make that thing X? It seems so under
<a href="https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1498">28 USC 1498</a> if that third party is making the thing X for the US?<o:p></o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
<p class="MsoNormal"><i>"For the purposes of this section, the use or manufacture of an invention described in and covered by a patent of the United States by a contractor, a subcontractor, or any person, firm, or corporation for the Government and with the
authorization or consent of the Government, shall be construed as use or manufacture for the United States."<o:p></o:p></i></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Please let me know if you have any articles or written discussions on this issue.<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal">Thanks.<o:p></o:p></p>
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<p class="MsoNormal"><o:p> </o:p></p>
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