[E-trademarks] Unusual Consent Agreement Situation - Will the USPTO Accept It?

[Nancy Prager]

 I have had a very similar situation in the past.  What we did was have the two former partners file for registration of UNIQUE MARK jointly subject to a co-ownership agreement which laid out the parameters for each party's individual use.  It also prohibited certain uses without getting the consent of, and a revenue share to, the other party (e.g. merchandise licensing).   Once the mark UNIQUE MARK is registered you should not need to get the geographic signifier marks separately registered but if they insist it would  be subject to co-ownership stemming from the original mark.  I did this for the client 5 years ago and everyone seems copasetic.
best,
Nancy 

    On Wednesday, December 4, 2024 at 12:35:25 PM EST, Amanda Conley via E-trademarks <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com> wrote:  
 
 Hello Braintrust, 
Seeking advice on how folks think the USPTO might respond to a consent agreement in a rather unusual situation.
My client previously operated a business with a partner under the name UNIQUE MARK. Several years ago, the partners agreed to go their separate ways, signing an agreement that dealt only very cursorily with the use of UNIQUE MARK. The agreement essentially stated that both partners would share equal ownership over UNIQUE MARK, but did not address registration. At the time of the agreement, no applications had been filed for UNIQUE MARK.
Fast forward to several months ago, my client learned that its former partner had filed USPTO trademark applications in its own name for three marks, let’s call them: (1) UNIQUE MARK; (2) UNIQUE MARK BROOKLYN; and (3) UNIQUE MARK ATLANTA.  
I’ll skip over the details of the dispute that ensued. The issue now is this: the partner has agreed to withdraw the application for UNIQUE MARK alone, without a geographical indicator, but wants to retain (2) and (3) in its individual name. My client is ok with this in principle, but wants to file an application for UNIQUE MARK OAKLAND in its own name. The goods are identical (many customers still assume that the partners are working together) and while the parties’ physical locations are on opposite coasts, their customers originate from all over, and they are not interested in agreeing to geographic restrictions on their use beyond physical locations. Also, each of these marks are stylized in an identical manner, making them obviously related. 
The former partner has agreed to consent to my client’s registration of UNIQUE MARK OAKLAND. But I am very concerned that the USPTO is not going to accept this consent under these unusual circumstances. The marks have identical stylization and differ only by the inclusion of geographic indicators. The goods are identical. 
I’ve proposed various solutions as a contingency in case the USPTO does not accept the former partner’s consent, (e.g., joint ownership, ownership by a jointly owned LLC, etc.) but they are not open to these. Counsel for the former partner insists that the USPTO will accept the consent agreement if the parties believe confusion isn’t likely, but I’m not convinced, and am still pushing for us to build in a contingency.
And so I’d love to hear from folks on this thread: am I being overly conservative in my expectations of the USPTO? I understand that consent agreements are often accepted as long as they have some teeth, but this is such a unique situation that it gives me serious concerns. Any insight would be much appreciated.
Thanks in advance!
Best,
Amanda R. Conleyshe/her/hers
Conley Law, P.C.2601 Blanding Avenue Suite C-393Alameda, CA 94501
p: (510) 500-5210                           e: amanda at amandaconleylaw.comw: amandaconleylaw.com
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