[E-trademarks] Living person's consent when using a part of names

[Orvis]

No, because a restaurant name formed from parts of two people's names does not identify a living individual.

Jul 3, 2025 1:37:00 PM Dale Quisenberry via E-trademarks <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>:

> My initial reaction is no, but curious to know if there is any rule or case on this that others may know about.
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> C. Dale Quisenberry
> Quisenberry Law PLLC
> 13910 Champion Forest Drive, Suite 203
> Houston, Texas 77069
> (832) 680.5000 (office)
> (832) 680.1000 (mobile)
> (832) 680.5555 (facsimile)
> www.quisenberrylaw.com[http://www.quisenberrylaw.com]
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> *From: *E-trademarks <e-trademarks-bounces at oppedahl-lists.com> on behalf of Esther Lee via E-trademarks <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>
> *Date: *Thursday, 3 July 2025 at 12:33 pm
> *To: *e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>
> *Cc: *Esther Lee <estherdahyunlee at gmail.com>
> *Subject: *[E-trademarks] Living person's consent when using a part of names
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> A restaurant name was formed by taking one to two syllables from two chefs' names, as stated on the website. If a restaurant owner wants to trademark the business name, does he need to include written consent from the two chefs in the application?
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> Esther
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