[E-trademarks] Living person's consent when using a part of names

[asarabia2]

Unless it happens to be the name of a celebrity.

Regards,

Tony Sarabia

IP Business Law, Inc.
320 via Pasqual
Redondo Beach, CA 90277
(310)377-5171
www.calrestitution.com

On 7/3/2025 10:54 AM, Orvis via E-trademarks wrote:
> No, because a restaurant name formed from parts of two people's names 
> does not identify a living individual.
>
> Jul 3, 2025 1:37:00 PM Dale Quisenberry via E-trademarks 
> <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>:
>
>     My initial reaction is no, but curious to know if there is any
>     rule or case on this that others may know about.
>
>     C. Dale Quisenberry
>
>     Quisenberry Law PLLC
>
>     13910 Champion Forest Drive, Suite 203
>
>     Houston, Texas 77069
>
>     (832) 680.5000 (office)
>
>     (832) 680.1000 (mobile)
>
>     (832) 680.5555 (facsimile)
>
>     www.quisenberrylaw.com <http://www.quisenberrylaw.com>
>
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>     *From: *E-trademarks <e-trademarks-bounces at oppedahl-lists.com> on
>     behalf of Esther Lee via E-trademarks
>     <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>
>     *Date: *Thursday, 3 July 2025 at 12:33 pm
>     *To: *e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com
>     <e-trademarks at oppedahl-lists.com>
>     *Cc: *Esther Lee <estherdahyunlee at gmail.com>
>     *Subject: *[E-trademarks] Living person's consent when using a
>     part of names
>
>     A restaurant name was formed by taking one to two syllables from
>     two chefs' names, as stated on the website. If a restaurant owner
>     wants to trademark the business name, does he need to include
>     written consent from the two chefs in the application?
>
>     Esther
>
>
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